The Scriptures vs. Catholicism | Scripture

Authority.  I feel that authority lies at the root of most of the differences between scripture and the practices of the Catholic Church.  In Matthew 28:18 Jesus says that all authority (power in the KJV) is given Him, both in heaven and on earth.  Therefore, if any man has any religious authority, it must have been given to him by Jesus.  I’d like for you to consider a few issues I have with authority as recognized by the Catholic Church:

1. The Bible:  I’ve written an extensive survey of the authority of the Bible and how we know it is complete.  Please follow this link and you'll be taken to it:  Sola Scriptura:  Why we must use the Bible only.

2. Tradition:  The Catholic Church recognizes tradition as being a valid source of authority, in addition to the Bible.  The Catholic Encyclopedia says the following about the belief of “Protestants” and Catholics on the issue of tradition:  “Catholics, on the other hand, hold that there may be, that there is in fact, and that there must of necessity be certain revealed truths apart from those contained in the Bible."  Jesus said that the Word of God is truth, and it’s by this Word that we are sanctified (John 17:17).  As we learned in the study “How we know the Bible is complete”, the scriptures (the Word of God) are able to make men complete (2 Timothy 3:16-17).  If the Word of God was incomplete, it would be unable to make men complete.  Therefore, when Jesus said that the Word of God is truth, it must contain only truth and it must contain all truth.  In an article I’ve written (and published to this website) entitled “Why must we use the Bible only?”, I look at each verse where the word paradosis (translated “tradition”) is used.  Only 3 of the 13 times the word is used is a positive idea conveyed.  2 Thessalonians 3:6 says, “Now we command you, brethren, in the name of our Lord Jesus Christ, that ye withdraw yourselves from every brother that walketh disorderly, and not after the tradition which he received of us.”  Anyone who did not follow the tradition they received of Paul was to be withdrawn from!  The only tradition that’s authorized in this verse is the tradition the Thessalonian Christians received from Paul.

3. The “deposit of faith”:  As we learned in our study of the Bible and its perfection, there is no new revelation from God being given to man today.  As the Catholic Encyclopedia says, which I quoted in the above paragraph, Catholics believe that there must of necessity be revealed truths apart from those contained in the Bible.  Mario Derksen, a Catholic web author, has this to say about the deposit of faith:  “As I just showed, no doctrine is based on the Bible alone, but on the deposit of faith (of which the Bible is merely a part).”  (http://www.cathinsight.com/apologetics/infant.htm)  The Catholic Church considers the Bible to be only a part of the deposit of faith.  Catholicism has changed many times over the centuries as different ecumenical councils gathered together to reconsider the teachings of the Catholic Church.  This contradicts scripture and takes authority away from the Word of God and gives it to men.

Rightly dividing the Word of Truth (2 Timothy 2:15):  I was watching EWTN one evening, and the commentator gave the reason why the Catholic Church forbids contraception:  It violates the 5^th commandment (“Thou shalt not kill”).  I’d like to take a few moments and review why it’s not possible to violate the 5^th commandment today:

1. The Ten Commandments were given to Moses and the nation of Israel (Exodus 34:27-28).  In Romans 3:19 Paul says, “Now we know that what things soever the law saith, it saith to them who are under the law…”  Since the commandments were given only to the nation of Israel, anyone who was not an Israelite was not subject to the Ten Commandments, since they were not under that law and therefore were not subject to it.

2. Were the Ten Commandments designed to be a lasting covenant between God and the nation of Israel?

   1. First, consider a couple of God’s characteristics

      1. He doesn’t change (Malachi 3:6; Hebrews 13:8)

      2. He is no respecter of persons (Romans 2:11; Acts 10:34; Ephesians 6:9; Colossians 3:25; 1 Peter 1:17).  Since God is no respecter of persons and He doesn’t change, He never has been and never will be a respecter of persons.

   2. Doesn’t the fact that God gave the Ten Commandments to the nation of Israel but not to the Gentiles show that He is a respecter of persons?  On the surface, it may.  However, if our understanding of an issue contradicts scripture, it shows us that we don’t understand the issue under consideration.  Let’s consider the Gentiles during the time the nation of Israel was under the Ten Commandments:

      1. Genesis 22:18:  God tells Abraham that in his seed all nations of the earth would be blessed.

      2. Exodus 34:27-28:  The Ten Commandments were given to one nation, the nation of Israel.

      3. Galatians 3:16:  The seed through whom all nations would be blessed is Christ.

      4. Christ was of the tribe of Judah (Hebrews 7:14), who was the son of Israel, who was the son of Isaac.

      5. So all nations (Jews and Gentiles) would be blessed through the seed of Abraham (Christ, whose forefather was Isaac).

      6. The promise made to Abraham in Genesis 22:18 was given 430 years prior to the law given to Moses (Galatians 3:17).  This verse also tells us that the law was not able to make the promise of none effect (worthless).  Therefore, the law given to one nation (Moses and the children of Israel) was unable to nullify the promise made to Abraham that through his seed all nations of the earth would be blessed.  So, the Ten Commandments had to end before the promise made to Abraham could come to fruition.  I’ll have more to say on this point shortly.

      7. Were the Gentiles without hope during the time the Ten Commandments were in effect?  This is the essence of the question I asked under (2) above.  The answer must be no, since God is no respecter of persons and He doesn’t change.  He could be neither if the Gentiles had hope prior to the Ten Commandments but had no hope during the time the Ten Commandments were in effect.  Since the Gentiles were not subject to the Ten Commandments, how did they have hope during the time of the Ten Commandments?

         1. Romans 2:13:  It’s not the hearers of the law that are just before God, but the doers of the law.

         2. The Gentiles could do by nature the things contained in the law, therefore be doers of the law and considered just by God (Romans 2:14-15).

      8. However, we see in Ephesians 2:11-12 that something changed for the Gentiles:  They now have no hope!  No longer could they do by nature the things contained in the law and be considered just by God.  What changed?

         1. Paul says they were “without Christ” (Ephesians 2:12)

         2. Paul uses the phrase “at that time” to indicate when it was the Gentiles were without hope (verse 12).

         3. “At that time” cannot refer to the time of the Law of Moses, because the Jews were also “without Christ” when the Law of Moses was in effect.  “At that time” must refer to a time when the Jews had Christ but the Gentiles didn’t.

         4. Acts 2:5:  The ones who heard Peter’s first gospel sermon on the day of Pentecost were Jews.  The ones who were pricked in their hearts (2:37), who were told what to do (2:38), who obeyed (2:41) and who were added to the church by Jesus (2:47) were all Jews.

         5. On the day of Pentecost the period of time Paul calls “at that time” started.

         6. Acts 10:  Peter preaches to Cornelius, who was a Gentile (Acts 11:1).  Cornelius and his household were obedient (Acts 10:48), just as some 3,000 Jews were on the day of Pentecost.  “At that time” has now ended.  The Gentiles have the same hope as the Jews, and that hope is found only in Christ.

      9. Now we understand that hope is found only in Jesus Christ, not the Law of Moses.  What did Jesus do to the Law of Moses when He died on the cross?

         1. Matthew 5:18:  “For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.”  Jesus says that one jot or one tittle would not pass from the law until all be fulfilled.  The word “until” is key:  It is a time-limiting word.  When you say you’ll be on Okinawa until July 2005, I understand you to mean that you’ll no longer be on Okinawa in August 2005. “Until” tells me how long you’ll be on this island.  (My friend and I live on Okinawa.  I used this example to show him what is meant by the word “until”.)  “Until” in Matthew 5:18 tells us that the Law of Moses was destined to end, and that its ending would happen when all had been fulfilled.

         2. John 19:28:  “After this, Jesus knowing that all things were now accomplished, that the scripture might be fulfilled, saith, I thirst.”  Jesus knew that all things had been accomplished that the scripture might be fulfilled.  At that moment the Law of Moses was abolished and ceased being a valid covenant between God and man.  No longer could the Jews do the things written in the law or the Gentiles do by nature the things contained in the law and be considered just by God.  Justification is no longer by doing the deeds of the law but it is now by Christ!  (Please review other resources I’ve published to this site to consider justification in more detail.)

   3. What are the consequences of attempting to keep any part of the Law of Moses today?

      1. Galatians 5:4:  “Christ is become of no effect unto you, whosoever of you are justified by the law; ye are fallen from grace.”  Christ has become of no effect for the Catholic Church due to its doctrine being based on elements of the old law.  This is true for the Catholic Church and any other individual or religious organization that bases its doctrine upon any part of the old law.

      2. James 2:9-10:  “For whosoever shall keep the whole law, and yet offend in one point, he is guilty of all.  For he that said, Do not commit adultery, said also, Do not kill. Now if thou commit no adultery, yet if thou kill, thou art become a transgressor of the law.”  The Catholic Church is guilty of the entire old law, because it attempts to keep some parts of the law of Moses but not others.  The Catholic Church doesn’t teach that one should keep the Sabbath day holy, but that commandment was also one of the Ten Commandments given to Moses on Mt. Sinai.

   4. What purpose does the Old Testament serve today?

      1. Romans 15:4:  “For whatsoever things were written aforetime were written for our learning, that we through patience and comfort of the scriptures might have hope.”

      2. 1 Corinthians 10:11:  “Now all these things happened unto them for examples: and they are written for our admonition, upon whom the ends of the world are come.”

      3. In these two passages we see that we are to learn from the things recorded in the Old Testament, but the OT has ceased being a valid covenant between God and man and no longer serves as a source of religious authority today.